Logo

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Last Updated: 24.06.2025 04:02

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

My landlord just sold the house I’m renting from her. She included all fixtures, that I bought and installed. Does she have this right?

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

You'll usually find your answer there.

There's no rule.

World fertility rates in 'unprecedented decline' - UN - BBC

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

The Cause of Alzheimer's Might Be Coming From Within Your Mouth - ScienceAlert

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.